With no explanation, chose the best option from "A", "B", "C" or "D". property while keeping up installment payments without a reaffirmation of personal liability allows a debtor to force a new arrangement on a creditor.” In re Edwards, 901 F.2d 1383, 1386 (7th Cir.1990) (affirming bankruptcy court’s order that the debtor choose between reaffirmation, redemption, or surrender); see also In re Taylor, 3 F.3d 1512, 1516 (11th Cir.1993) (same); accord In re Chavarria, 117 B.R. 582, 585 (Bankr.D.Idaho 1990) (Pappas, Bankr. J.); In re Stevens, 85 B.R. 854, 855 (Bankr.D.Idaho 1988) (Hagan, Bankr. J.); In re Kennedy, 137 B.R. 302, 304 (Bankr.E.D.Ark.1992) (Scott, Bankr. J.); In re Griffin, 143 B.R. 535, 537 (Bankr.E.D.Ark.1991) (Fussell, Bankr. J.); In re Gerling, 175 B.R. 295, 298 (Bankr.W.D.Mo.1994); cf. In re Bell, 700 F.2d 1053, 1056-58 (6th Cir.1983) (<HOLDING>). I agree with the courts which have considered

A: holding that the principal of a corporate debtor does not become a transferee by the mere act of causing the debtor to make a fraudulent transfer
B: holding that debtor cannot redeem by installments under  722
C: holding debtor could cure after the debtor had previously made payments to the bank
D: holding debtor could include property because the bank accepted payments directly from the debtor and had previously allowed the debtor to cure default
B.