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GDPR compliance - do you have explicit consent from the individual #1

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nickevansuk opened this issue Jun 1, 2018 · 1 comment
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@nickevansuk
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In some cases the publisher does not need to seek explicit consent, as legitimate interests or contract may be sufficient lawful basis for processing. Should be updated to "GDPR compliance - do you have sufficient lawful basis for publishing data from these data subjects as open data"

@nickevansuk nickevansuk added the bug Something isn't working label Jun 1, 2018
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@ldodds @drchristhorpe just pasting in Chris' comment: "Leigh and I were discussing this earlier and both felt that it should be consent for the data to be part of the Open Data feed. Providers will absolutely have other reasons for storing/processing but it should be a consent to share/publish"

We got pushback on that logic from the lawyer during GDPR stuff - he favoured only prescribing lawful basis where necessary - it might be worth us checking this with a legal beagle of some description?

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