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finish exercise 6.9
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SwitWu committed Apr 23, 2023
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Expand Up @@ -303,8 +303,18 @@ \chapter{Baire定理及其应用}
\end{exercise}

\begin{proof}
Since $u(E)\subset v(E)$, for any $x\in E$, $u(x)\in v(E)$. Thus
there exists some $y\in E$ such that $u(x) = v(y)$.
The space
\[X=\{(y,z)\in E\times E: u(y)=v(z)\}\]
is again a Banach space as a closed (by the continuity of $u$ and $v$)
subspace of $E\times E$ endowed, e.g., with the norm $\|(y,z)\|=\max\{\|y\|,\|z\|\}$
(in category theory, $X$ is called a \emph{pullback} of $u$ and $v$).
The assumption implies that the first projection
\[\pi:X\to E,\, (y,z)\mapsto y\]
is surjective and hence open. By the open mapping theorem,
there is a constant $k\geq 0$ such that,
for every $x\in E$, there is $(y,z)\in X$ with $\|(y,z)\|\le k\|x\|$ and $\pi(y,z)=x$.
This means $y=x$ and $z\in E$ satisfies $\|z\|\le\|(y,z)\|\le k\|x\|$
as well as $u(x)=u(y)=v(z)$.
\end{proof}


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