Absolute vs. relative disparity and the implications for fairness results

[LiFaytheGoblin]

According to Verma & Rubin 2018 PPV + FDR = 1 and thus if there is PPV Parity there is also FDR Parity.
However, Aequitas sais there is no FDR Parity, but PPV Parity:

I understand that using Aequitas it looks like there was no FDR Parity because Aequitas looks at relative disparities while Verma & Rubin talk about absolute differences. Why does Aequitas prefer relative disparities?